Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
14.06.2025 14:12
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why can’t the British eat or drink anything unless they place a table cloth on the table first?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you caught a shoplifter at your yard sale, how would you handle it?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.